EXAMINATION NOTICE NO. 03/2012-NDA-I DATED: 31.12.2011
(Last Date for Receipt of Applications : 30.01.2012)
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY & NAVAL ACADEMY EXAMINATION (I), 2012
(Commission's Website http://www.upsc.gov.in)
F.No. 7/2/2011-E.I(B) : An Examination
will be conducted by the Union Public
Service Commission on 15th April, 2012
for admission to the Army, Navy and Air
Force wings of the NDA for the 129th
Course, and for the 91st Indian Naval
Academy Course (INAC) commencing from
December 2012. The candidates Joining
Indian Naval Academy would undergo 4
years B.Tech Course and would be given
a n o p p o r t u n i t y t o j o i n E x e c u t i v e a n d
Technical Branches of the Navy subject to
availability of vacancies.
The approximate number of vacancies to
be filled on the results of this examination
will be 335 [(195 for the Army, 39 for Navy,
66 for the Air Force and 35 for Indian Naval
Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme)].
Vacancies are provisional and may be
changed depending on the availability of
t r a i n i n g c a p a c i t y o f Na t i o n a l De f e n c e
Academy.
N.B. (i) A candidate is required to specify
clearly in the online application form the
S e r v i c e s f o r w h i c h h e w i s h e s t o b e
considered in the order of his preference
[1 to 4]. He is also advised to indicate as
many preferences as he wishes to opt so
that having regard to his rank in the order
of merit due consideration can be given to
h i s p r e f e r e n c e s w h e n m a k i n g
appointments.
(ii) Candidates should note that they will
be considered for appointment to those
services only for which they express their
preferences and for no other service(s). No
r e q u e s t f o r a d d i t i o n / a l t e r a t i o n i n t h e
p r e f e r e n c e s a l r e a d y i n d i c a t e d b y a
c a n d i d a t e i n h i s a p p l i c a t i o n w i l l b e
entertained by the Commission.
(iii) Admission to the above courses will be
m a d e o n t h e r e s u l t s o f t h e w r i t t e n
e x a m i n a t i o n t o b e c o n d u c t e d b y t h e
Commission followed by intelligence and
personality test by the Services Selection
Board, of candidates who qualify in the
written examination.
2 . C e n t r e s o f E x a m i n a t i o n : T h e
Examination will be held at the following
Centres :
AGARTALA GANGTOK PANAJI (GOA)
AHMEDABAD HYDERABAD PATNA
AIZAWL IMPHAL PORT BLAIR
ALLAHABAD ITANAGAR RAIPUR
BANGALORE JAIPUR RANCHI
BAREILLY JAMMU SAMBALPUR
BHOPAL JORHAT SHILLONG
CHANDIGARH KOCHI SHIMLA
CHENNAI KOHIMA SRINAGAR
CUTTACK KOLKATA THIRUVANANDEHRADUN LUCKNOW THAPURAM
DELHI MADURAI TIRUPATI
DHARWAD MUMBAI UDAIPUR
DISPUR NAGPUR VISHAKHAPATNAM
The centres and the date of holding the
examination as mentioned above are liable
to be changed at the discretion of the
Commission. While every effort will be
made to allot the candidates to the centre
o f t h e i r c h o i c e f o r e x a m i n a t i o n , t h e
Commission may, at their discretion, allot
a different centre to a candidate, when
circumstances so warrant. Candidates
a d m i t t e d t o t h e e x a m i n a t i o n w i l l b e
informed of the time table and place or
places of examination.
Candidates should note that no request
f o r c h a n g e o f c e n t r e wi l l n o rma l l y b e
granted. When a candidate, however ,
desires a change in centre from the one he
had indicated in his Application Form for
the Examination, he must send a letter
a d d r e s s e d t o t h e C o n t r o l l e r o f
E x a m i n a t i o n s , U n i o n P u b l i c S e r v i c e
Commission, giving full justification as to
why he desires a change in centre. Such
requests will be considered on merits but
requests received after 29th February,
2012 will not be entertained under any
circumstances.
3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY :
(a) Nationality : A candidate must either
be :
(i) a citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Bhutan, or
(iii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to
India before the 1st January, 1962 with
the intention of permanently settling in
India, or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has
migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri
Lanka and East African Countries of
Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic
of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire
a n d E t h i o p i a o r V i e t n am wi t h t h e
intention of permanently settling in
India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to
categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall
be a person in whose favour a certificate of
e l i g i b i l i t y h a s b e e n i s s u e d b y t h e
Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will not, however,
be necessary in the case of candidates who
are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :
Only unmarried male candidates born not
earlier than 2nd January, 1994 and not
later than 1st July, 1996 are eligible.
T h e d a t e o f b i r t h a c c e p t e d b y t h e
C o m m i s s i o n i s t h a t e n t e r e d i n t h e
M a t r i c u l a t i o n o r S e c o n d a r y S c h o o l
L e a v i n g Ce r t i f i c a t e o r i n a c e r t i f i c a t e
recognised by an Indian University as
equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract
from a Register of Matriculates maintained
by a University which must be certified by
the proper authority of the University or in
the Higher Secondary or an equivalent
examination certificates. These certificates
are required to be submitted only after the
declaration of the result of the written part
of the examination. No other document
relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits,
birth extracts from Municipal Corporation,
s e r v i c e r e c o r d s a n d t h e l i k e w i l l b e
accepted. The expression Matriculation/
Higher Secondary Examination Certificate
in this part of the instruction includes the
alternative certificates mentioned above.
Note 1 : Candidates should note that only
the Date of Birth as recorded in the
Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examina t i o n C e r t i f i c a t e a v a i l a b l e o r a n
equivalent certificate on the date of
s u bmi s s i o n o f a p p l i c a t i o n s wi l l b e
accepted by the Commission and no
subsequent request for its change will
be considered or granted.
Note 2 : Candidates should also note that
once a Date of Birth has been claimed by
them and entered in the records of the
Commission for the purpose of admission
to an Examination, no change will be
a l l owe d s u b s e q u e n t l y o r a t a n y
subsequent examination on any ground
whatsoever.
Note 3 : The candidates should exercise
due care while entering their date of birth
in the respective column of the online
Application Form for the Examination. If
on verification at any subsequent stage
any variation is found in their date of birth
f r o m t h e o n e e n t e r e d i n t h e i r
Matriculation or equivalent Examination
certificate, disciplinary action will be
taken against them by the Commission
under the Rules.
Note 4 : Candidates must undertake not
to marry until they complete their full
t r a i n i n g . A c a n d i d a t e wh o ma r r i e s
subsequent to the date of his application
t h o u g h s u c c e s s f u l a t t h i s o r a n y
subsequent examination will not be
selected for training. A candidate who
mar ri e s d u r i n g t r a i n i n g s h a l l b e
discharged and will be liable to refund all
expenditure incurred on him by the
Government.
(c) Educational Qualifications :
(i) For Army wing of National Defence
Academy :- 12th Class pass of the 10+2
pattern of School Education or equivalent
e x a m i n a t i o n c o n d u c t e d b y a S t a t e
Education Board or a University.
(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of
National Defence Academy and for the
10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian
Naval Academy :- 12th Class pass of the
1 0 + 2 p a t t e r n o f S c h o o l E d u c a t i o n o r
equilvalent with Physics and Mathematics
conducted by a State Education Board or
a University.
Candidates who are appearing in the 12th
Class under the 10+2 pattern of School
Education or equivalent examination can
also apply for this examination.
Such candidates who qualify the SSB
i n t e r v i e w b u t c o u l d n o t p r o d u c e
Matriculation/10+2 or equivalent certificate
in original at the time of SSB Interview
should forward the certificates alongwith
photocopies thereof to `Addl. Directorate
General of Recruiting, Army HQ, West
Block-III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066'
and for Naval Academy candidates to
' N a v a l H e a d q u a r t e r s , D M P R , O I & R
Section, Room No. 204, `C' Wing, Sena
B h a v a n , N e w D e l h i - 1 1 0 0 1 1 ' b y 5 t h
D e c e m b e r , 2 0 1 2 f a i l i n g w h i c h t h e i r
candidature will be cancelled. All other
c a n d i d a t e s w h o h a v e p r o d u c e d t h e i r
matriculation and 10+2 pass or equivalent
c e r t i f i c a t e s i n o r i g i n a l a t t h e t i m e o f
attending the SSB interview and have got
the same verified by the SSB authorities
are not required to submit the same to Army
HQ or Naval HQ as the case may be.
Ce r t i f i c a t e s i n o r i g i n a l i s s u e d b y t h e
P r i n c i p a l s o f t h e i n s t i t u t i o n s a r e a l s o
a c c e p t a b l e i n c a s e s wh e r e B o a r d s /
UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
IMPORTANT
1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:
The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all
eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all
the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying
the prescribed eligibility conditions.
Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that
his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.
Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken
up only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test.
2. HOW TO APPLY
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website http://
www.upsconline.nic.in Brief instruction for filling up the online Application
Form have been given in the Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available
on the above mentioned website.
3. LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS :
The Online Applications can be filled upto 30th January 2012 till 11.59 PM
after which the link will be disabled.
4. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS :
Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong
answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.
5. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES :
In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications,
candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near Gate
‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No.011-23385271/011-23381125/
011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs. and 17.00 hrs.
6. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:
(a) Mobiles phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not
allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted.
Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action
including ban from future examinations.
(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned
items including mobile phones/pagers to the venue of the examination,
as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured.
7. Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the
Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured. Commission
will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE ONLY. NO OTHER
MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION
continued..18 U P S C Employment News 31 December 2011 - 6 January 2012
Universities have not yet issued certificates.
Certified true copies/photostat copies of such
certificates will not be accepted.
In exceptional cases the Commission may
treat a candidate, who does not possess
any of the qualifications prescribed in this
rule as educationally qualified provided that
he possesses qualifications, the standard
of which in the opinion of the Commission,
justifies his admission to the examination.
NOTE 1 : Candidates appearing in the 11th
c l a s s e x a m a r e n o t e l i g i b l e f o r t h i s
examination.
NOTE 2 : Those candidates who have yet to
qual i fy in the 12th class or equivalent
examination and are allowed to appear in
the UPSC Examination should note that this
is only a special concession given to them.
They are required to submit proof of passing
the 12th class or equivalent examination by
the prescribed date (i.e. 5th December,
2012) and no request for extending this date
will be entertained on the grounds of late
conduct of Board/University Examination,
delay in declaration of results or any other
ground whatsoever.
NOTE 3 : Candidates who are debarred by
the Ministry of Defence from holding any
type of commission in the Defence Services
shall not be eligible for admission to the
e x a m i n a t i o n a n d i f a d m i t t e d , t h e i r
candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE 4: Those candidates who have
failed INSB/PABT earlier are not eligible
for Air Force.
(d) Physical Standards :
Candidates must be physically fit according
to physical standards for admission to
Nat ional Defence Academy and Naval
Academy Examinat ion( I ) , 2012 as per
guidelines given in Appendix-IV.
( e ) A c a n d i d a t e wh o h a s r e s i g n e d o r
withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from any
of the training academies of Armed Forces
is not eligible to apply.
4. FEE :
Candiates (excepting SC/STcandidates/
Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in Note
2 below who are exempted from payment
of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 50/-
(Rupees Fifty only) either by remitting the
money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by
using net banking facility of State Bank of
India/ State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/Sate
Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/
S t a t e B a n k o f P a t i a l a / S t a t e B a n k o f
Travancore or by using Visa/Master Credit/
Debit Card.
For the applicants in whose case payments
details have not been received from the
b a n k t h e y wi l l b e t r e a t e d a s f i c t i t i o u s
p a y m e n t c a s e s a n d a l i s t o f a l l s u c h
applicants shall be made available on the
Commission website within two weeks after
t h e l a s t d a y o f s u b m i s s i o n o f o n l i n e
application. These applicants shall also be
intimated through e-mail to submit copy of
proof of their payment to the Commission
at the address mentioned in the e-mail. The
applicant shall be required to submit the
proof within 10 days from the date of such
communication either by hand or by speed
p o s t t o t h e C o m m i s s i o n . I n c a s e , n o
response is received from the applicants
t h e i r a p p l i c a t i o n s s h a l l b e s u m m a r i l y
rejected and no further correspondence
shall be entertained in this regard.
N O T E - 1 : C a n d i d a t e s b e l o n g i n g t o
Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and
those specified in Note 2 below are not
required to pay any fee. No fee exemption
is, however, available to OBC candidates
and they are required to pay the full
prescribed fee.
NOTE-2: The sons of serving/ex-Junior
C o m m i s s i o n e d O f f c e r s / N o n - C o m m i -
ssioned Officers/Other Ranks of Army and
equivalent ranks in the Indian Navy/Indian
Air Force are also not required to pay the
prescribed fee if they are studying in Military
School (formerly known as King George's
S c h o o l ) / S a i n i k S c h o o l r u n b y S a i n i k
Schools Society. [Note: A certificate of
eligibility for fee exemption is required to
be obtained by all such candidates from
the Principals concerned individually and
produced for verification at the time of
SSB Test/Interview by the candidates
who are declared qualified for the SSB
Test/Interview.]
NOTE-3: No claim for a refund of fee once
paid to the Commission will be entertained
nor can the fee be held in reserve for any
other examination or selection.
5. HOW TO APPLY:
Candidates are required to apply Online
b y u s i n g t h e w e b s i t e h t t p : / / w w w .
upsconline. nic.in Detailed instructions for
filling up online applications are available
on the abovementioned website.
NOTE 1: The applicants are advised to
submit only single appliation; however, if
due to any unavoidable situation, if he
submits another/multiple applications, then
he must ensure that application with the
higher RID is complete in all respects like
applicants' details, examination centre,
p h o t o g r a p h , s i g n a t u r e , f e e e t c . T h e
applicants who are submitting multiple
appl icat ions should note that only the
applications with higher RID (Registration
ID) shall be entertained by the Commission
and fee paid against one RID shall not be
adjusted against any other RID.
NOTE-2: All candidates whether already in
Government Service including candidates
s e r v i n g i n t h e A r m e d F o r c e s , S a i l o r s
[including boys and artificers apprentices)
of the Indian Navy, Cadets of Rashtriya
Indian Military College [previously known
as Sainik School, Dehradun), Students of
Military Schools formerly known as King
George's Schools) and Sainik Schools run
by Sainik Schools Society, Government
owned industrial undertakings or other
s i m i l a r o r g a n i s a t i o n s o r i n p r i v a t e
employment should apply direct to the
Commission.
N.B. (a) Persons already in Government
service, whether in permanent or temporary
capacity or as work charged employees
other than casual or daily rated employees
o r t h o s e s e r v i n g u n d e r t h e P u b l i c
Enterprises; (b) Candidates serving in the
Armed Forces, Sailors [including boys and
artificers apprentices] of the Indian Navy;
and (c) Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military
C o l l e g e [ p r e v i o u s l y k n o w n a s S a i n i k
School, Dehradun), Students of Military
Schools formerly known as King George's
Schools) and Sainik Schools run by Sainik
School Society are required to inform their
Head of Office//Department, Commanding
O f f i c e r , P r i n c i p a l s o f C o l l e g e / S c h o o l
concerned, as the case may be, in writing
that they have applied for this examination.
Candidates should note that in case a
c o m m u n i c a t i o n i s r e c e i v e d b y t h e
C o m m i s s i o n f r o m t h e i r e m p l o y e r /
a u t h o r i t y c o n c e r n e d w i t h h o l d i n g
permission to the candidates applying for/
a p p e a r i n g a t t h e e x ami n a t i o n , t h e i r
applications will be liable to be rejected/
candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.
N O T E 3 : W H I L E F I L L I N G I N T H E
APPLICATION FORM, THE CANDIDATE
SHOULD CAREFULLY DECIDE ABOUT
HIS CHOICE FOR THE CENTRE FOR THE
EXAMINATION.
IF ANY CANDIDATE APPEARS AT A
CENTRE OTHER THAN THE ONE
INDICATED BY THE COMMISSION IN HIS
ADMISSION CERTIFICATE, THE PAPERS
OF SUCH A CANDIDATE WILL NOT BE
VALUED AND HIS CANDIDATURE WILL
BE LIABLE TO CANCELLATION.
NOTE 4 : APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE
PRESCRIBED FEE (UNLESS REMISSION
OF FEE IS CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE)
OR INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL
B E SUMMARI L Y RE J ECT ED. NO
RE PRE S ENT A T ION OR
CORRESPONDENCE REGARDING SUCH
REJECTION SHALL BE ENTERTAINED
UNDER ANY CIRCUMS T ANCE S .
CANDIDATES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO
SUBMI T ALONGWI TH THE IR
APPLICATIONS ANY CERTIFICATE IN
SUP PORT OF THE IR CLAIMS
REGARDING AGE , EDUCAT IONAL
QUALIFICATIONS, SCHEDULED CASTES/
SCHEDUL ED TRIBES/ O T H E R
BACKWARD CLAS S E S AND F E E
REMI S S ION E TC. THE Y SHOULD,
THERE FORE , ENSURE THAT THE Y
FULFIL ALL THE ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS
FOR ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION.
THEIR ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION
WILL ALSO THEREFORE BE PURELY
PROVISIONAL. IF ON VERIFICATION AT
ANY LATER DATE IT IS FOUND THAT
THEY DO NOT FULFIL ALL ELIGIBILITY
CONDITIONS, THEIR CANDIDATURE
WILL BE CANCELLED. THE RESULT OF
THE WRI T T EN P ART OF THE
E X AMINA T ION I S L I K E L Y TO B E
DECLARED IN THE MONTH OF JULY,
2012.
A L L CANDIDA T E S CA L L ED FOR
INT ERV I EW MUS T CARRY THE IR
O R I G I N A L MA TRICUL A T ION
CERT I F ICA T E OR EQUI V A L ENT
EXAMINATION CERTIFICATE TO THE
SERVICES SELECTION BOARD (SSB).
ORIGINA L S WI L L HA V E TO B E
PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES WHO
QUALIFY AT THE SSB INTERVIEW SOON
AFTER THE INTERVIEW. THE ORIGINALS
WI L L B E RE TURNED A F T ER
VERIFICATION. THOSE CANDIDATES
WHO HAVE ALREADY PASSED 10+2
E X AMINA T ION MUS T CARRY THE IR
ORIGINAL 10+2 PASS CERTIFICATE OR
MARKS SHEET FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW.
IF ANY OF THEIR CLAIMS IS FOUND TO
BE INCORRECT THEY MAY RENDER
THEMSELVES LIABLE TO DISCIPLINARY
ACTION BY THE COMMISSION IN TERMS
OF THE FOLLOWING PROVISIONS :
A candidate who is or has been declared
by the Commission to be guilty of:
(i) obtaining support for his candidature
by any means, or
(ii) impersonating, or
(iii) p r o c u r i n g i m p e r s o n a t i o n b y a n y
person, or
(iv) submitting fabricated documents or
documents which have been tampered
with, or
(v) making statements which are incorrect
o r f a l s e o r s u p p r e s s i n g m a t e r i a l
information, or
(vi ) resor t ing to any other i r regular or
improper means in connection with his
candidature for the examination, or
(vii) u s i n g u n f a i r m e a n s d u r i n g t h e
examination, or
(viii)wr i t ing i r relevant mat ter , including
obscene language or pornographic
matter, in the script (s), or
(ix) misbehaving in any other manner in
the examination hall, or
(x) harassing or doing bodily harm to the
Staff employed by the Commission for
the conduct of their examination, or
(xi) being in possession of or using mobile
p h o n e , p a g e r o r a n y e l e c t r o n i c
e q u i pme n t o r d e v i c e o r a n y o t h e r
equipment capable of being used as a
c o m m u n i c a t i o n d e v i c e d u r i n g t h e
examination, or
(xii) violating any of the instructions issued
t o c a n d i d a t e s a l o n g w i t h t h e i r
Admission Certificates permitting them
to take the examination, or
(xiii)attempting to commit or as the case
may be abetting the commission of all
or any of the acts specified in the
foregoing clauses, may in addition to
rendering himself liable to criminal
prosecution be liable
(a) t o b e d i s q u a l i f i e d b y t h e
Commission from the examination
for which he is a candidate and/or
(b) to be debarred either permanently
or for a specified period
(i) by the Commission from any
examination or selection held
by them;
(ii) by the Cent ral Government
from any employment under
them; and
(c) if he is already in service under
Government to disciplinary action
under the appropriate rules.
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall
be imposed except after :–
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of
making such representation, in writing
as he may wish to make in that behalf;
and
(ii) t a k i n g t h e r e p r e s e n t a t i o n , i f a n y ,
submitted by the candidate within the
p e r i o d a l l o w e d t o h i m i n t o
consideration.
6 . L A S T D A T E F O R R E C E I P T O F
APPLICATIONS :
The Online Applications can be filled upto
30th January, 2012 till 11.59 PM after
which the link will be disabled.
7 . C O R R E S P O N D E N C E W I T H T H E
COMMISSION/ARMY/NAVAL/AIR HEAD
QUARTERS.
The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their
candidature except in the following cases:
(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued either a paper Admission Certificate or an e-admit card about three
weeks before the commencement of
the exam. The mode of e-admit card
can be either through e-mail (as provided by the applicant at the time of
submission of application) or they may
download from UPSC website.
(ii) If a candidate does not receive his
Admission Certificate/e-admit card
or any other communication regarding his candidature for the examination one week before the commencement of the examination, he should
at once contact the Commission. On
receipt of such a communication, Admission Certificate/e-admit card or a
duplicate copy thereto will be issued to
the admitted candidate. Information in
this regard can also be obtained from
the Facilitation Counter located in the
Commission’s office either in person
or over phone Nos. 011-23385271/
011-23381125/011- 23098543. In
case no communication is received
in the Commission's office from the
candidate regarding non-receipt of
his Admission Certificate/e-admit
card at least one week before the
examination, he himself will be solely
responsible for non-receipt of his
Admission Certificate/e-admit card.
It may be noted that the Admission
Certificate/e-admit card will be issued
at the address filled by him in his online
A p p l i c a t i o n F o r m . T h e c a n d i d a t e
should, therefore, ensure that the address given by him in the Application
Form is correct and complete with pin
code.
No candidate will ordinarily be allowed
to take the examination unless he holds
a cer t i f icate of admission for the
examination. On receipt of Admission
Cer t i f icate/ e - a d m i t c a r d, c h e c k i t
careful ly and br ing discrepancies/
errors, if any, to the notice of the UPSC
immediately. The courses to which the
candidates are admi t ted wi l l be
according to their eligibility as per
educational qualifi-cations for different
courses and the preferences given by
the candidates.
The candidates should note that
their admission to the examination
will be purely provisional based on
the information given by them in the
Application Form. This will be subject
to verification of all the eligibility
conditions.
(iii) In the event of a candidate receivingEmployment News 31 December 2011 - 6 January 2012 U P S C 19
more than one Admission Certificate/
e-admit card from the Commission, he
s h o u l d u s e o n l y o n e o f t h e s e
Admission Certificates/e-admit cards
for appearing in the examination and
return the other(s) to the Commission’s
Office.
(iv) If a candidate receives an Admission
Certificate/e-admit card in respect of
some other candidate on account of
processing error, the same should be
i m m e d i a t e l y r e t u r n e d t o t h e
Commission with a request to issue
the correct Admission Certificate/eadmit card. Candidates may note that
they will not be allowed to take the
examination on the strength of an
Admission Certificate/e-admit card
issued in respect of another candidate.
(v) The decision of the Commission as to
the acceptance of the application of a
c a n d i d a t e a n d h i s e l i g i b i l i t y o r
o t h e r w i s e f o r a d m i s s i o n t o t h e
Examination shall be final.
(vi) Candidates should note that the name
in the Admission Certificate/e-admit
c a r d i n s o m e c a s e s , m a y b e
abbreviated due to technical reasons.
(vii) Candidates must ensure that their em a i l I D s g i v e n i n t h e i r o n l i n e
applications are valid and active.
(viii) A c a n d i d a t e m u s t s e e t h a t
communications sent to him at the
address stated in his application are
redirected, if necessary. Change in
address should be communicated to
t h e C o m m i s s i o n a t t h e e a r l i e s t
opportunity. Although the Commission
make every effort to take account of
such changes, they cannot accept any
responsibility in the matter.
Important : All communications to the
Commission should invariably contain the
following particulars.
1. Name and year of the examination.
2. Registration ID (RID)
3. Roll No. (If received)
4. Name of candidate in full and in block
letters.
5. P o s t a l a d d r e s s a s g i v e n i n t h e
application.
N.B. (I) : Communications not containing
the above particulars may not be attended
to.
N.B. (II) : If a letter/communication is
received from a candidate after an examination has been held and it does not give
his full Name and Roll Number, it will be
ignored and no action will be taken thereon.
C a n d i d a t e s r e c o m m e n d e d b y t h e
Commission for interview by the Services
Selection Board who have changed their
addresses subsequent to the submission
of their applications for the examination
should immediately after announcement
of the result of the written part of the
examination notify the changed address
also to:-
For candidates with Army as First choiceArmy Headqarters, AG’s Branch RTG. (NDA
Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R.K. Puram,
New Delhi-110066, Phone No. 26175473.
For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy
as first choice–Naval Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, OI & R
Section, R.No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan,
New Delhi-110011, Phone No. 23010097/
23011282.
For candidates with Air Force as first choiceAir Headquarters, Directorate of Personnel
(Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, ‘J’ Block,
Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg,
New Delhi-110011, Phone No. 23010231
Extn. 7081.
FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THIS INSTRUCTION WILL DEPRIVE THE CANDIDATE OF ANY CLAIM TO CONSIDERATION IN THE EVENT OF HIS NOT RECEIVING THE SUMMONS LETTER FOR
INTERVIEW BY THE SERVICES SELECTION BOARD.
Candidates whose names have been recommended for interview by the Services
Selection Board should address enquiries
or requests, if any, relating to their interview or visit website of respective service
headquarters after 20 days from the announcement of written results as follows :-
For candidates with Army as First choiceArmy Headquarters, AG’s Branch, RTG
(NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R.K.
Puram, New Delhi -110066, Phone No.
26175473 or www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as
first choice–Naval Headquarters, Directorate
of Manpower & Recruitment, R & R Section,
Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New
Delhi -110011, Phone No. 2 3 0 1 0 0 9 7 /
23011282 or www.nausenabharti.nic.in
F o r c a n d i d a t e s wi t h A i r F o r c e a s f i r s t
choice-Air Headquarters, Directorate of
Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No.
17, ‘J’ Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal
Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110011, Phone
N o . 2 3 0 1 0 2 3 1 E x t n . 7 0 8 1 / 7 0 8 2 o r
www.careerairforce.nic.in
Candidates are required to report for SSB
interview on the date intimated to them in
the call up letter for interview. Requests for
postponing interview will only be considered in exceptional circumstances and that
too if it is administratively convenient for
which Army Headquarters will be the sole
deciding authority. Such requests should
be addresed to the Administrative Officer of
the Selection Centre from where the call
letter for interview has been received. No
action will be taken on letters received by
Army/Navy/Air HQs. SSB interview for the
candidates qualified in the written examination will be held during the months of
September - October, 2012 or as suitable
to Recruiting Directorate.
8. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS
O F T H E W R I T T E N E X A M I N A T I O N ,
I N T E R V I E W O F Q U A L I F I E D
CANDIDATES, ANNOUNCEMENT OF
FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO
T H E T R A I N I N G C O U R S E S O F T H E
FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES :
The Union Public Service Commission
shal l prepare a l ist of candidates who
obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the
w r i t t e n e x a m i n a t i o n a s f i x e d b y t h e
C o m m i s s i o n a t t h e i r d i s c r e t i o n . S u c h
candidates shall appear before a Services
S e l e c t i o n B o a r d f o r I n t e l l i g e n c e a n d
Personality Test where candidates for the
Army/Navy wings of the NDA and 10+2
C a d e t E n t r y S c h e m e o f I n d i a n N a v a l
Academy will be assessed on Officers
Potentiality and those for the Air Force in
P i l o t A p t i t u d e T e s t a n d f o r O f f i c e r s
P o t e n t i a l i t y . P A B T a p p l i c a b l e t o
candidates with Air Force as First choice
w o u l d a l s o b e c o n d u c t e d f o r a l l S S B
qualified candidates with one of the choice
as Air Force subject to their eligibility and
if they are so willing.
TWO-STAGE SELECTION PROCEDURE
Two-stage selection procedure based on
P s y c h o l o g i c a l A p t i t u d e T e s t a n d
Intelligence Test has been introduced at
S e l e c t i o n Ce n t e r s / A i r F o r c e S e l e c t i o n
Boards. All the candidates will be put to
stage one test on first day of reporting at
S e l e c t i o n Ce n t e r s / A i r F o r c e S e l e c t i o n
Boards. Only those candidates who qualify
at stage one will be admitted to the second
stage/remaining tests. Those candidates
who qualify stage II will be required to
submit the original Certificates along with
o n e p h o t o c o p y e a c h o f : ( I ) o r i g i n a l
Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent
in support of date of birth, (ii) Original 10+2
pass certificate or equivalent in support of
educational qualification.
C a n d i d a t e s w h o a p p e a r b e f o r e t h e
Services Selection Board and undergo the
test there, will do so at their own risk and
w i l l n o t b e e n t i t l e d t o c l a i m a n y
c o m p e n s a t i o n o r o t h e r r e l i e f f r o m
Government in respect of any injury which
they may sustain in the course of or as a
result of any of the tests given to them at
the Services Selection Board whether due
t o t h e n e g l i g e n c e o f a n y p e r s o n o r
otherwise. Parents or guardians of the
c a n d i d a t e s w i l l b e r e q u i r e d t o s i g n a
certificate to this effect.
To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/
Navy/Naval Academy and Air Force should
s e c u r e t h e mi n imum q u a l i f y i n g ma r k s
separately in (i) Written examination as
fixed by the Commission at their discretion
and (ii) Officer potentiality Test as fixed by
t h e S e r v i c e s S e l e c t i o n B o a r d a t t h e i r
discretion. Over and above candidates for
the Air Force, and all the SSB qualified
c a n d i d a t e s a s p e r t h e i r w i l l i n g n e s s ,
eligibility and preference for Air Force,
should separately qualify the PABT.
Subject to these conditions the qualified
candidates will then be placed in a single
combined list on the basis of total marks
secured by them in the Written Examination
and the Services Selection Board Tests.
The final allocation/selection for admission
to the Army, Navy, Air Force of the National
Defence Academy and 10+2 Cadet Entry
Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be
m a d e u p t o t h e n u m b e r o f v a c a n c i e s
avai lable subject to el igibi l i ty, medical
fitness and merit-cum-preference of the
c a n d i d a t e s . T h e c a n d i d a t e s w h o a r e
eligible to be admitted to multiple Services/
Courses will be considered for allocation/
selection with reference to their order of
preferences and in the event of their final
a l l o c a t i o n / s e l e c t i o n t o o n e S e r v i c e /
Course, they will not be considered for
admission to other remaining Services/
Courses.
N.B. : EVERY CANDIDATE FOR THE AIR
FORCE IS GIVEN PILOT APTITUDE TEST
ONLY ONCE. THE GRADE SECURED BY
HIM AT THE FIRST TEST WILL THEREF O R E H O L D G O O D F O R E V E R Y
SUBSEQUENT INTERVIEW HE HAS WITH
THE AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARD. A
CANDIDATE WHO FAILS IN THE FIRST
PILOT APTITUDE TEST CANNOT APPLY
FOR ADMISSION TO THE NATIONAL
DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAMINATION FOR
THE AIR FORCE WING OR GENERAL
DUTIES (PILOT) BRANCH OR NAVAL AIR
ARM.
Candidates who have been given the Pilot
Aptitude Test for any previous N.D.A. course
should submit their application for this
examination for the Air Force Wing, only if
they have been notified as having qualified
in the Pilot Aptitude Test.
The form and manner of communication of
the result of the examination to individual
c a n d i d a t e s s h a l l b e d e c i d e d b y t h e
Commission at their discretion and the
C o m m i s s i o n w i l l n o t e n t e r i n t o
correspondence with them regarding the
result.
Success in the examination confers no right
of admission to the Academy. A candidate
must satisfy the appointing authority that
he is suitable in all respects for admission
to the Academy.
9. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION
TO THE TRAINING COURSE :-
Candidates who were admitted to an earlier
course at the National Defence Academy or
to the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian
N a v a l A c a d e m y but were removed
therefrom for lack of officer-like qualities or on
disciplinary grounds will not be admitted to
the Academy.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn
from the National Defence Academy or
Indian Naval Academy on medical grounds
or left the above Academy voluntarily are
however , el igible for admission to the
Academy provided they satisfy the medical
and other prescribed conditions.
10. NO REQUEST FOR WITHDRAWAL OF
CANDIDATURE RECE I V ED FROM A
CANDIDATE AFTER HE HAS SUBMITTED HIS APPLICATION WILL BE ENTERT A I N E D U N D E R A N Y C I R C U M S -
TANCES.
11. The details regarding (a) the scheme
a n d s y l l a b u s o f t h e e x a m i n a t i o n , ( b )
g u i d e l i n e s f o r f i l l i n g u p t h e o n l i n e
Application Form, (c) Special Instructions
to candidates for objective type tests, (d)
Physical standards for admission to the
Nat ional Defence Academy and Naval
Academy and (e) Brief particulars of the
service etc., for candidates joining the
Nat ional Defence Academy and Naval
Academy are given in Appendices I, II, III,
IV and V respectively.
KULDEEP KUMAR SAHARAWAT
DEPUTY SECRETARY
Union Public Service Commission
A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
1. The subjects of the written examination,
the time allowed and the maximum marks
allotted to each subject will be as follows :–
Subject Code Duration Maximum
Marks
Mathematics 01 2-½ Hours 300
General 02 2-½ Hours 600
Ability Test
Total 900
SSB Test/Interview : 900
APPENDIX-I
(The scheme and syllabus of examination)
2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS
WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUE S T IONS ONL Y . THE QUE S T ION
P A P E R S ( T E S T B O O K L E T S ) O F
M A T H E M A T I C S A N D P A R T " B " O F
GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET
BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS
ENGLISH.
3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system
of Weights and Measures only will be set.
4. Candidates must write the papers in their
own hand. In no circumstances will they be
allowed the help of a scribe to write answers
for them.
5. The Commission have discretion to fix
qualifying marks in any or all the subjects
at the examination.
6. The candidates are not permitted to use
calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic
table for answering objective type papers
(Test Booklets). They should not therefore,
bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
B. SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
PAPER-I
MATHEMATICS
(Code No. 01)
(Maximum Marks- 300)
1. ALGEBRA
Concept of a set, operations on sets, Venn
diagrams. De Morgan laws. Car tesian
product, relation, equivalence relation.
Representation of real numbers on a line.
Comp l e x n umb e r s - b a s i c p r o p e r t i e s ,
modulus, argument, cube roots of unity.
Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a20 U P S C Employment News 31 December 2011 - 6 January 2012
APPENDIX-II
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIATES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATION
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website http://www.upsconline.
nic.in
Salient Features of the system of Online Application Form are given hereunder :
l Detailed instructions for filling up Online applications are available on the above
mentioned website.
l Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application form containing
two stages viz. Part-I and Part-II as per the instructions available in the above
mentioned site through drop down menu.
l The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 50/- (Rupees Fifty Only) [excepting
SC/ST candidates and those specified in Note-2 of Para 4 of the Notice who are
exempted from payment of fee] either by remiting the money in any branch of SBI
by cash or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner
& Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/
State Bank of Travancore or by using any Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.
l Before start filling up on Online Application, a candidate must have his photograph
and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that each file should
not exceed 40 KB and must not be less than 3 KB in size for the photograph and 1
KB for the signature.
l The Online applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 31st December, 2011 to
30th January, 2012 till 11.59 p.m., after which link will be disabled.
l Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications. However, if due to any
unavoidable circumstances any applicant submits multiple applications then he
must ensure that the applications with higher RID is complete in all respects.
l In case of multiple applications, the applications with higher RID shall be entertained
by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any
other RID.
l Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for
the last date for submission of online application.
number in decimal system to binary system
and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and
H a r m o n i c p r o g r e s s i o n s . Q u a d r a t i c
equations with real coefficients. Solution of
l inear inequat ions of two var iables by
graphs. Permutation and Combination.
Binomial theorem and i ts appl icat ions.
Logarithms and their applications.
2. MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS :
Types of matrices, operations on matrices.
Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of
determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square
matrix, Applications - Solution of a system of
linear equations in two or three unknowns by
Cramer's rule and by Matrix Method.
3. TRIGONOMETRY :
Angles and their measures in degrees and in
radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric
identities Sum and difference formulae.
Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse
trigonometric functions. Applications - Height
and distance, properties of triangles.
4. ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND
THREE DIMENSIONS :
Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system.
Distance formula. Equation of a line in
various forms. Angle between two lines.
Distance of a point from a line. Equation of
a circle in standard and in general form.
Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and
hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic.
Point in a three dimensional space, distance
between two points. Direction Cosines and
direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a
line in various forms. Angle between two
l i n e s a n d a n g l e b e t w e e n t w o p l a n e s .
Equation of a sphere.
5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS :
Concept of a real valued function - domain,
range and graph of a function. Composite
functions, one to one, onto and inverse
functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits -
e x a m p l e s . C o n t i n u i t y o f f u n c t i o n s -
e x a m p l e s , a l g e b r a i c o p e r a t i o n s o n
continuous functions. Derivative of function
a t a p o i n t , g e o m e t r i c a l a n d p h y s i c a l
interpretation of a derivative - applications.
Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of
funct ions, der ivat ive of a funct ion wi th
respect to another function, derivative of a
c o m p o s i t e f u n c t i o n . S e c o n d o r d e r
derivatives. Increasing and decreasing
funct ions. Appl icat ion of der ivat ives in
problems of maxima and minima.
6 . I N T E G R A L C A L C U L U S A N D
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS :
Integration as inverse of differentiation,
integration by substitution and by parts,
s t a n d a r d i n t e g r a l s i n v o l v i n g a l g e b r a i c
expressions, trigonometric, exponential
and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of
definite integrals - determination of areas
of plane regions bounded by curves -
applications.
Definition of order and degree of a differential
equation, formation of a differential equation
by examples. General and particular solution
of a differential equations, solution of first
order and first degree differential equations
of various types - examples. Application in
problems of growth and decay.
7. VECTOR ALGEBRA :
V e c t o r s i n two a n d t h r e e d ime n s i o n s ,
magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and
null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar
multiplication of a vector, scalar product or
dot product of two vectors. Vector product or
cross product of two vectors. Applicationswork done by a force and moment of a force
and in geometrical problems.
8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY:
Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency
d i s t r i b u t i o n , c u m u l a t i v e f r e q u e n c y
d i s t r i b u t i o n - e x a m p l e s . G r a p h i c a l
representat ion - Histogram, Pie Char t ,
frequency polygon - examples. Measures
of Central tendency - Mean, median and
mode. Variance and standard deviation -
determination and comparison. Correlation
and regression.
Probability : Random experiment, outcomes
and associated sample space, events,
mutually exclusive and exhaustive events,
impossible and certain events. Union and
Intersection of events. Complementary,
elementary and composite events. Definition
of probability - classical and statistical -
e x amp l e s . E l eme n t a r y t h e o r ems o n
probability - simple problems. Conditional
p r o b a b i l i t y , B a y e s ' t h e o r em - s imp l e
problems. Random variable as function on
a sample space. Binomial dist r ibut ion,
examples of random experiments giving rise
to Binominal distribution.
PAPER-II
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Code No. 02)
(Maximum Marks-600)
Part ‘A’ - ENGLISH (Maximum Marks 200)
The question paper in English will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding of English and workman like use of
words. The syllabus covers various aspects
like : Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text
to test the candidate’s proficiency in English.
Part ‘B’ - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
(Maximum Marks-400)
The question paper on General Knowledge
will broadly cover the subjects : Physics,
Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events.
The syllabus given below is designed to
indicate the scope of these subjects included in this paper. The topics mentioned
are not to be regarded as exhaustive and
questions on topics of similar nature not
specifically mentioned in the syllabus may
also be asked. Candidate’s answers are
expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject.
Section ‘A’ (Physics)
Physical Properties and States of Matter,
Mass, Weight, Volume, Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer.
Mo t i o n o f o b j e c t s , Ve l o c i t y a n d
Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion,
Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of
Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies,
Gravi tat ion, elementary ideas of work,
Power and Energy.
Effects of Heat, Measurement of temperature and heat, change of State and Latent
Heat, Modes of transference of Heat.
Sound waves and their properties, Simple
musical instruments.
Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection
a n d r e f r a c t i o n . S p h e r i c a l m i r r o r s a n d
Lenses. Human Eye.
Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties
of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet.
Static and Current Electricity, conductors
and Non-conductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple
Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and
Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement
of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays.
General Principles in the working of the following :
Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon,
Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone,
Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, Mariner’s Compass;
Lightening Conductors, Safety Fuses.
Section ‘B’ (Chemistry)
Physical and Chemical changes. Elements,
Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical Equations,
Law of Chemical Combination (excluding
problems). Properties of Air and Water.
Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen,
Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction.
Acids, bases and salts.
Carbon - different forms.
Fertilizers - Natural and Artificial
Material used in the preparation of substances like soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement,
Paints, Safety Matches, and Gun-Powder.
Elementary ideas about the Structure of
Atom, Atomic, Equivalent and Molecular
Weights, Valency.
Section ‘C’ (General Science)
Difference between the living and non- living.
Basis of Life - Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues.
Growth and Reproduction in Plants and
Animals.
Elementary knowledge of Human Body and
its important organs.
Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention.
Food - Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet.
The Solar System - Meteors and Comets,
Eclipses.
Achievements of Eminent Scientists.
Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement
etc.)
A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation.
Freedom Movement in India.
Elementary study of Indian Constitution and
Administration.
Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans
of India.
Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development.
Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration
and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi.
Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of
American Independence. French Revolution, Industrial Revolution and Russian
Revolution. Impact of Science and Technology on Society. Concept of one World,
United Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy.
Socialism and Communism. Role of India
in the present world.
Section ‘E’ (Geography)
The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes
and Longitudes, Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and
their effects.
Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering - Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and volcanoes.
Ocean Currents and Tides
Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary
Winds, cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation; Types
of Climate. Major Natural regions of the
World.
Regional Geography of India - Climate,
Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and industrial activities.
Important Sea ports and main sea, land and
air routes of India. Main items of Imports
and Exports of India.
Section ‘F’ (Current Events)
Knowledge of Important events that have
happened in India in the recent years.
Current important world events.
Prominent personalities - both Indian and
International including those connected
with cultural activities and sports.
NOTE :
Out of maximum marks assigned to part ‘B’
of this paper, questions on Sections ‘A’, ‘B’,
‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’ and ‘F’ will carry appoximately
2 5%, 1 5%, 1 0%, 2 0%, 2 0% a n d 1 0%
weightages respectively.
Intelligence and personality test
In addition to the interview the candidates
will be put to Intelligence Tests both verbal
and non-verbal, designed to assess their
basic intelligence. They will also be put to
Group Tests such as group discussions,
group planning, outdoor group tasks, and
asked to give brief lectures on specified
subjects. All these tests are intended to
judge the mental calibre of a candidate. In
broad terms, this is really an assessment of
not only his intellectual qualities but also
his social traits and interests in current
affairs.Employment News 31 December 2011 - 6 January 2012 U P S C 21
ANNEXURE
How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination
Hall
Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the answer sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions
may result in reduction of your score for which you would yourself be responsible.
Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in
various particulars in it.
As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check that it is
numbered at the bottom. If it is found un-numbered he should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.
You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which
reads thus :
Write in Ink/L;kgh ls fy[ksa
dsUÊ fo"k; fo"k; dksM vuqØekad
Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number
If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the Mathematics
Paper* and your Roll No. is 081276, and your test booklet series is `A' you should
fill in thus, using ink or ball point pen.
Write in Ink/L;kgh ls fy[ksa
dsUÊ fo"k; fo"k; dksM vuqØekad
Centre Delhi Subject Mathe- S. Code Roll Number
matics (A)
You should write in ink or ball point pen the name of the centre and subject in
English or Hindi.
The test Booklet Series is incidated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right
hand corner of the Booklet.
Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your Admission Certificate in ink in the
boxes provided for this purpose. Do not omit any zero(s) which may be there.
The next step is to find out the approriate subject code from the Time Table. Now
encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles
provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with H.B. Pencil. The name of the
Centre need not be encoded.
Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test
Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same.
For Mathematics * subject paper of `A' Test Booklet Series you have to encode
the subject code, which is 01. Do it thus:
iqfLrdk Øe (,) fo"k; 0 1
Booklet Series (A) Subject
● ● €
B ➀ ●
C ➁ ➁
D ➂ ➂
➃ ➃
➄ ➄
➅ ➅
➆ ➆
➇ ➇
➈ ➈
All that is required is to blacken completely the circle
marked `A' below the Booklet Series and below the
subject code blacken completely the Circles for "0"
(in the first vertical column) and "1" (in the second
vertical column). You should then encode the Roll No.
081276. Do it thus similarly :
Important : Please ensure that you have carefully
encoded your subject, Test Booklet series and Roll
Number . I f you make any mistake, erase i t
completely and re-mark correctly.
*This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to
your Examination.
0 1 0 8 1 2 7 6
vuqØekad
Roll Numbers
0 8 1 2 7 6
● € € € € €
➀ ➀ ● ➀ ➀ ➀
➁ ➁ ➁ ● ➁ ➁
➂ ➂ ➂ ➂ ➂ ➂
➃ ➃ ➃ ➃ ➃ ➃
➄ ➄ ➄ ➄ ➄ ➄
➅ ➅ ➅ ➅ ➅ ●
➆ ➆ ➆ ➆ ● ➆
➇ ● ➇ ➇ ➇ ➇
➈ ➈ ➈ ➈ ➈ ➈
APPENDIX-III
Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests
1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), a good quality H.B. pencil
for making responses on the Answer Sheet, eraser, pencil sharpener and a pen
containing blue or black ink. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be
supplied by the Invigilator.
2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall
Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified
above, e.g., books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide
rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s), etc.
Mobiles phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not
allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted.
Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action
including ban from future examinations.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned
items including mobile phones/pagers to the venue of the examination,
as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured.
Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the
Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured.
Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
3. Penalty for wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS
MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question
for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of
the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii)If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same
penalty as above for that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.
4. Unfair means strictly prohibited
No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his
papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain
irregular assistance of any description.
5. Conduct in Examination Hall
No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in
the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the
conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.
6. Answer Sheet particulars
(i) Write in ink or ball point pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet
series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top. Also encode (in pencil) your booklet
series (A, B, C or D, as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the
circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing
the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the test booklet or answer
sheet is un-numbered, please report immediately to the Invigilator and get the
test booklet/answer sheet replaced.
(ii) All corrections and changes in writing the roll number must be initialed by the
candidates as well as by the Invigilator and countersigned by the Supervisor.
(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that
the test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing
pages or items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the same
series and subject.
7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information
asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work.
8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer
Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.
9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the answer sheets.
They should use HB pencil only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes,
they should use blue or black pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating
the answer sheets on computerised machines, they should make these
entries very carefully and accurately.
10. Method of marking answers
In the "OBJECTIVE TYPE" of examination, you do not write the answers. For
each question (hereinafter referred to as "Item") several suggested answers
(hereinafter referred to as "Responses") are given. You have to choose one
response to each item.
The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will
contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3 ............ etc. Under each item, Responses
marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct
response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose
what you consider the best response.
In any case, for each item you are to select only one response. If you select
more than one response, your response will be considered wrong.
In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. from 1 to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each
item in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses is
correct or the best, you have to mark your response by completely blackening with HB pencil to indicate your response. Ink should not be used
for blackening the circle on the Answer Sheet.
For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the
letter (b) is to be completely blackened with pencil as shown below :-
Example : (a) ● (c) (d)
To change a wrong marking, erase it completely and re-mark the new choice.
11. Signature on Attendance List
You are required to write the serial number of the Answer Sheet and Test Booklet
and Series of Test Booklet issued to you on the Attendance List and to sign in
appropriate column against your name. Any change or correction in these particulars should be authenticated by the candidate by putting his signatures.
12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any
candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct, he will render himself
liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penality as the Commission
may deem fit.22 U P S C Employment News 31 December 2011 - 6 January 2012
GUIDELINES FOR PHYSICAL STANDA R D S F O R A D M I S S I O N T O T H E
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY
Note : CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSIC A L L Y A N D M E N T A L L Y F IT
ACCORDING TO THE PRESCRIBED
PHYSICAL STANDARDS. THE GUIDELINES FOR THE SAME ARE GIVEN
BELOW.
A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDID A T E S A R E R E J E C T E D S U B S E -
QUENTLY ON MEDICAL GROUNDS.
C A N D I D A T E S A R E T H E R E F O R E
ADVISED IN THEIR OWN INTEREST
TO GET THEMSELVES MEDICALLY
E X AMINED B E FORE SUBMI T T ING
T H E I R A P P L I C A T I O N S T O A V O I D
DI S A P POINTMENT A T THE F INA L
STAGE.
Candidates are also advised to rectify
minor defects/ailments in order to speed
up finalisation of medical examination
conducted at the Military Hospital after
being recommended at the SSB.
Few of such commonly found defects/
ailments are listed below :
(a) Wax (Ears)
(b) Deviated Nasal Septum
(c) Hydrocele/Phimosis
(d) Overweight/Underweight
(e) Under sized Chest
(f) Piles
(g) Gynaecomastia
(h) Tonsillitis
(i) Varicocele
Civilian candidates appearing for all
t y p e s o f c o m m i s s i o n i n t h e A r m e d
Forces will be entitled to out-patients
treatment from service sources at public
e x p e n s e f o r i n j u r i e s s u s t a i n e d o r
diseases contracted during the course
of their examination by the Selection
Board. They will also be entitled to inpatient treatment at public expense in
t h e O f f i c e r s ’ s w a r d o f a h o s p i t a l
provided–
(a) the injury is sustained during the
tests or,
(b) the disease is contracted during the
course of the examination by selection
b o a r d a n d t h e r e i s n o s u i t a b l e
accommodation in local civil hospital or
it is impracticable to remove the patient
to the civil hospital; or,
(c) t h e me d i c a l b o a r d r e q u i r e s t h e
candidates’s admission for observation.
NOTE : They are not entitled to special
nursing.
A c a n d i d a t e r e c o m m e n d e d b y t h e
Services Selection Board will undergo
a medical examination by a Board of
Service Medical Officers. Only those
c a n d i d a t e s w i l l b e a d m i t t e d t o t h e
academy who are declared fit by the
Medical Board. The proceedings of the
Medical Board are confidential and will
not be divulged to anyone. However
the candidates declared unfit will be
i n t i m a t e d b y t h e P r e s i d e n t o f t h e
Medical Board and the procedure for
request for an Appeal Medical Board
will also be intimated to the candidate.
Candidates declared unfit during Appeal
Medical Board will be intimated about
the provision of Review Medical Board.
(a) The candidate must be in good
physical and mental health and free
from any disease/disability which is
likely to interfere with the efficient
performance of Military duties.
(b) There should be no evidence of
weak constitution, bodily defects or
under weight. The candidate should
not be over weight or obese.
( c ) The minimum acceptable height
is 157.5 cms. (162.5 cms for Air
F o r c e ). F o r G o r k h a s a n d
i n d i v i d u a l s b e l o n g i n g t o h i l l s o f
No r t h E a s t e r n r e g i o n s o f I n d i a ,
G a r h w a l a n d K u m a o n , t h e
minimum acceptable heights will
b e 5 c m s . l e s s . I n c a s e o f
c a n d i d a t e s f r o m L a k s h a d w e e p
the minumum acceptable height
can be reduced by 2 cms. Height
and weight standards are given
below :
HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR
ARMY/AIR FORCE
TABLE-I
Height in Weight in Kgs.
Centimetres
(Without shoes)
16-17 17-18 18-19
years years years
152 ............ 42.5 44.0 45.0
155 ............ 43.5 45.3 47.0
157 ............ 45.0 47.0 48.0
160 ............ 46.5 48.0 49.0
162 ............ 48.0 50.0 51.0
165 ............ 50.0 52.0 53.0
167 ............ 51.0 53.0 54.0
170 ............ 52.5 55.0 56.0
173 ............ 54.5 57.0 58.0
175 ............ 56.0 59.0 60.0
178 ............ 58.0 61.0 62.0
180 ............ 60.0 63.0 64.5
183 ............ 62.5 65.0 66.5
HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR
NAVY
TABLE-II
Height in Weight in Kgs.
Centimetres
(Without shoes)
16 18 20
years years years
152 ............... 44 45 46
155 ............... 45 46 47
157 ............... 46 47 49
160 ............... 47 48 50
162 ............... 48 50 52
165 ............... 50 52 53
168 ............... 52 53 55
170 ............... 53 55 57
173 ............... 55 57 59
175 ............... 57 59 61
178 ............... 59 61 62
180 ............... 61 63 64
183 ............... 63 65 67
A ± 10% (A ± 6 Kg for Navy) departure
from the average weight given in the
table 1 above is to be considered within
normal limit. However, in individuals with
heavy bones and broad build as well as
individuals with thin build but otherwise
healthy this may be relaxed to some
extent on merit.
NOTE 1 : Height relaxable upto 2.5 cm
(5 cm. for Navy) may be allowed where
the Medical Board cer t i f ies that the
candidate is likely to grow and come up
to the required standard on completion
of his training.
NOTE 2 : To meet special requirement
as a pilot in the Air Force the acceptable
measurements of leg length, thigh length
and sitting height will be as under :–
Minimum Maximum
Leg Length 99.00cms. 120.00 cms.
Thigh Length – 64.00 cms.
Sitting Height 81.50cms. 96.00 cms.
On account of lower age of NDA candidates, a margin of upto 5.0 cm. in height,
2.5 cm. in leg length (minimum) and 1.0
cm. sitting height (minimum) may be given
provided it is certified by the Medical Board
that the candidate is likely to grow and
come upto the required standard on
completion of his training in NDA.
(d) Chest should be well developed.
Fully expanded chest should not be
less than 81 cms. The minimum
range of expansion after full inspiration should be 5 cms. The measurement will be taken with a tape so
adjusted that its lower edge should
touch the nipple in front and the upper part of the tape should touch the
lower angle of the shoulder blades
behind. X-Ray of the chest is compulsory and will be taken to rule out
any disease of the chest.
(e) There should be no maldevelopment
or impai rment of funct ion of the
bones or joint.
Spinal Conditions
(f) Past medical history of diseases or
injury of the spine or sacro iliac
joints, either with or without objective signs which have prevented the
candidate from successfully following a physical ly act ive l i fe, is a
cause for rejection for commissioning in IAF. History of spinal fracture/prolapsed intervertebral disc
and surgical treatment for these
conditions will entail rejection. The
following conditions detected radiologically during medical exam will
disqualify a candidate for Air Force
service.
(i) Granulomatous disease of spine
(ii) Arthritidies/spondylosis
- Rheumatoid arthritis and allied disorders
- Ankylosing spondylitis
- Osteoarthrosis, spondylosis and
degenerative joint disease
- Non articular rheumatism (e.g. lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis elbow, recurrent lumbago etc.)
- Miscellaneous disorders including
SLE, dermatomyositis, polymyositis, vasculitis.
(iii) Spondylolisthesis/spondylolysis.
(iv) Compression fracture of vertebrae.
(v) Scheuerman's disease (Adolescent kyphosis).
(vi) Loss of cervical lordosis when
associated with clinically restricted
movements of cervical spine.
(vii) Unilateral/Bilateral cervical ribs
with demonstrable neurological or
circulatory deficit.
(viii) Scoliosis more than 15 degree
as measured by Cobb's method.
(ix) Herniated necleus pulposus.
(x) Presence of schmorl's nodes at
more than one level.
(xi) Atlanto-occipital and atlantoaxial anomalies.
(xii) Hemi vertebrae and/or incomplete block (fused) vertebrae at any
level in cervical, dorsal or lumbar
spine and complete block (fused)
vertebrae at more than one level in
cervical or dorsal spine.
( x i i i ) Un i l a t e r a l S a c r a l i s a t i o n o r
lumbarisation (Complete or incomplete) at all levels and bilateral incomplete sacralisation or lumbarisation.
(xiv) Any other abnormality if so considered by the specialist.
(g) Mild Kyphosis or Lordosis where
deformity is barely noticeable and
there is no pain or restriction of movement will not preclude acceptance.
(h) In case of noticeable Scoliosis or
suspicion of any other abnormality
or spinal deformity, more than mild,
appropriate X-rays of the spine are
to be taken and the Examinee referred for specialist’s advice.
(i) The following conditions detected on
X-ray examination will be disqualifying for entry to Armed Forces.
(i) Granulomatius disease of spine.
(ii) Arthritidies/spondylosis
(iii) Scoliosis more than 15 degree
as measured by Cobb’s Method (10
degree for Army).
(iv) More than mild Kyphosis/Lordosis
(v) Spondylolisthesis/Spondylosis.
(vi) Herniated nucleus pulposes.
(vii) Compression fracture of Vertebra.
(viii) Sacaralisation Disease
(ix) Cervical ribs with demonstrable
neurological or Circulatory deficit.
(x) Presence of Schmorl’s node at
more than one level.
(xi) Atlanto-occipital, and atlantoaxial anomalies.
(xii) Incomplete Sacaralisation Unilateral or Bilateral
(xiii) Spinabifida other than SV 1 and
LV 5
(xiv) Any other abnormality, if so
considered by specialist.
(j) A candidate should have no past
history of mental breakdown or fits.
(k) The hearing should be normal. A
candidate should be able to hear a
forced whisper with each ear at a distance of 610 cms in a quiet room.
There should be no evidence of
present or past disease of the ear,
nose and throat. Audiometric test will
be done for AF. Audiometric loss
should not exceed+20 db in frequencies between 250Hz and 4000 Hz.
There is no impediment of speech.
(l) There should be no signs of functional or organic disease of the heart
and blood vessels. Blood pressure
should be normal.
(m) There should be no enlargement of
liver or spleen. Any evidence of disease of internal organs of the abdomen will be a cause for rejection.
(n) Un-operated hernias will make a candidate unfit. In case of Hernia which
has been operated, a minimum of 6
months must have passed prior to
final medical examination before
commencement of the course.
(o) There should be no hydrocele, varicocele or piles.
(p) Urine examination will be done and
any abnormality if detected will be
a cause for rejection.
(q) Any disease of skin which is likely
to cause disability or disfigurement
will also be a cause for rejection.
(r) A candidate should be able to read
in a distant vision chart 6/6 in better eye and 6/9 in worse eye with or
without glasses. Myopia should not
be more than 2.5 D and hyper -
metropia not more than 3.5 D including Astigmatism. Internal examination of the eye will be done
by means of opthalmoscope to rule
out any disease of the eye. A candidate must have good binocular
vision. The colour vision standard,
will be (CPIII) for Army. A candidate should be able to recognise
red and green colours. Candidates
will be required to give certificates
that neither he nor any member of
his family has suffered from congenital night blindness. Candidates
who have undergone or have the
evidence of having undergone Radial Keratotomy, to improve the visual acuity will be permanently rejected for all the Services. Candidates who have undergone Laser
Surgery for correction of refractive
error are also not acceptable to defence services.
APPENDIX-IVEmployment News 31 December 2011 - 6 January 2012 U P S C 23
Vision standard for Naval candidates
Uncorrected without glass 6/9
Corrected with glass 6/6
Limits of Myopia -0.75
Limits of Hypermetropia +1.5
Binocular vision I I I
Limits of colour preception I
Visual standards for Air Force
Candidates who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force, Minimum distant vision 6/6 in one eye and
6/9 in other, correctable to 6/6 only for
Hypermetropia, Colour vision CP-I Hypermetropia : + 2.0 D Sph
Manifest Myopia : Nil
Retinoscopic Myopia : - 0.5 in any Meridian permitted.
Astigmatism : +0.75 D Cyl
(within + 2.0 D-Max)
APPENDIX-V
(BRIEF PARTICULARS OF THE SERVICE ETC.)
1. Before a candidate joins the Academy, the parent or guardian will be required to sign:-
(a) A certificate to the effect that he fully
understands that he or his son or ward
shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government in respect of any injury which
his son or ward may sustain in the
course of or as a result of the training or
where bodily infirmity or death results in
the course of or as a result of a surgical
operation performed upon or anesthesia administered to him for the treatment
of any injury received as aforesaid or
otherwise.
(b) A bond to the effect that if, on account of his dismissal or discharge or
withdrawal from National Defence Academy for knowingly furnishing false particulars or suppressing material information in his application for admission to
the said National Defence Academy or
in the event of his being dismissed or
discharged or withdrawn on disciplinary
grounds from the said, National Defence
Academy or for any reason not beyond
the control of the cadet, he does not
complete the prescribed period of training, or he, the cadet, does not accept a
Commission if offered as conventated
above, then the Guarantors and the cadet shall jointly and severally be liable
to pay forthwith to Government in cash
sums as the Government shall fix but
not exceeding such expenses as shall
have been incurred by the Government
on account of the Cadet on his training
and all the money received by the Cadets as pay and allowance from the Government together with interest on the
said money calculated at the rate in force
for Government loans.
2. The cost of training including accommodation, books, uniforms, boarding and
medical treatment will be borne by the
Government. Parents or guardians of
cadets, will, however, be required to meet
their pocket and other private expenses.
Normally, these expenses are not likely
to exceed Rs. 400.00 p.m. If in any case
a cadet’s parents or guardian is unable
to meet wholly or partly even this expendi ture f inancial assistance upto Rs.
400.00 p.m. for the 1st and 2nd years,
Rs. 400.00 p.m. for the 3rd year training
at NDA and Rs. 400.00 p.m. for the further specialised training in Army/Navy/
Air Force Training Establishments may
be granted by the Government. No cadet whose parent’s or guardian’s income
exceeds Rs. 1500/- per month and Rs.
2000/- per month if more than one son/
ward simultaneously undergoing training
at NDA, IMA, OTA and corresponding
training establishment in the Navy and
Air Force would be eligible for the grant
Maddox Rod Test
(i) at 6 meters - Exo - 6 prism D
Eso - 6 prism D
Hyper-1 Prism D
Hypro-1 Prism D
(ii) at 33 cms - Exo - 16 Prism D
Eso - 6 prism D
Hyper - 1 prism D
Hypo - 1 prism D
Hand held Stereoscope - All of BSV
grades Convergence - Up to 10 cm
Cover test for distant and near -
Lateral divergence/convergence recovery rapid and complete
Radial Keratotomy, Photo Refractive
Keratotomy/laser in Situ, Kerato -
mileusis (PRK/LASIK) surgeries for correction of refractive errors are not permitted for any Air Force duties. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will
also be declared unfit.
Binocular vision must possess good binocular vision (fusion and stereopsis with
good amplitude and depth.
Candidates who have undergone LASIK
surgery are not considered fit for permanent commission in flying branch in IAF.
(s) USG abdomen examination will be
carried out and any congential structural anomaly or disease of the abdominal organs will be a cause for
rejection in Armed Forces.
(t) The candidates should have sufficient number of natural and sound
teeth. A minimum of 14 dental points
will be acceptable. When 32 teeth
are present, the total dental points
are 22. A candidate should not be
suffering from severe pyorrhoea.
(u) Routine ECG and EEG for Air Force
candidates must be within normal
limits.
(v) Physical conditioning: Prospective candidates are advised to keep
themselves in good physical condit i o n , b y f o l l o w i n g t h e
undermentioned routine :-
(a) Running 2.4 km in 15 minutes
(b) Skipping
(c) Pushups and sit ups (minimum 20
each)
(d) Chin ups (minimum 08)
(e) Rope climbing - 3-4 metres.
of financial assistance.
The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having financial assistance
from the Government should immediately after his son/ward having been finally selected for training at the National
Defence Academy submit an application through the District Magistrate of
his District who will forward the application with his recommendation to the
Commandant, National Defence Academy, KHADAKWASLA, PUNE-411023.
3. Candidates finally selected for training at the Academy will be required to
deposit the following amount with the
Commandant, National Defence Academy, on arrival there:
(a) Pocket allowance for Rs. 2000.00
five months at
Rs. 400.00 per month
(b) For items of clothing Rs. 3200.00
and equipment
(c) Incidental Expenditure
during Ist Semester Rs. 425.00
Total Rs. 5625.00
Out of the amount mentioned above the
following amount is refundable to the
candidate in the event of financial aid
being sanctioned to them.
(a) Pocket allowance for Rs. 2000.00
five months at Rs.
400.00 per month
(b) For items of clothing Rs. 475.00
and equipment
approximately
4. The following scholarships/Financial
Assistance are tenable at the National
Defence Academy.
(1) PARASHURAM BHAU PATWARDHAN SCHOLARSHIP - This scholarship
is granted to boys who belong to MAHARASHTRA AND KARNATAKA and
whose parents income is between Rs.
350.00 and 500.00 per month from all
sources. The value of the scholarship
is equal to the Government financial assistance. It is admissible for the duration of a Cadet’s stay in the National
Defence Academy and other Pre-commission training establishment subject
to the Cadet’s good conduct and satisfactory progress in the training and his
parents income remaining below the prescribed limit. Cadets who are granted
this scholarship, will not be entitled to
any other financial assistance from the
Government.
(2) COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP - This scholarship
is of the value of Rs. 360.00 per annum
and awarded to a MARATHA cadet who
should be the son of an ex-serviceman.
The scholarship is in addition to any financial assistance from the Government.
(3) KAUR SINGH MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP - Two scholarships are awarded
to cadets who obtain the highest position amongst candidates from BIHAR.
The value of each scholarship is Rs.
37.00 per mensem tenable for a maximum period of 4 years during the training at the National Defence Academy,
Khadakwasla and thereafter at the Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun and
the Air Force Flying College; and Indian
Naval Academy, Ezhimala where the cadets may be sent for training on completion of their training at the National Defence Academy. The scholarship will,
however, be continued subject to maintaining good progress at the above institution.
(4) ASSAM GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP - Two scholarships will be awarded
to the cadets from ASSAM. The value
of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per
mensem and is tenable for the duration
of a cadet’s stay at the National Defence
A c a d emy . T h e s c h o l a r s h i p s wi l l b e
awarded to the two best cadets from
ASSAM without any reference to the income of their parents. The cadets who
are granted this scholarship will not be
entitled to any other financial assistance
from the Government.
(5) UTTAR PRADESH GOVERNMENT
SCHOLARSHIPS - Two scholarships
each of the value of Rs. 30.00 per month
and an outfit stipend of Rs. 400.00 are
awarded to two cadets who belong to
UTTAR PRADESH on merit-cum-means
basis and are tenable for a period of three
years subject to satisfactory performance
by the cadets at National Defence Academy. Cadets who are granted these
Scholarships are not entitled to any other
financial assistance from Government.
(6) KERALA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS - One merit scholarship of
the value of Rs. 480/- per annum for
the entire period of training at NDA,
will be awarded by the State Government of Kerala to a Cadet who is dom i c i l e d r e s i d e n t o f t h e S t a t e o f
K ERA L A a n d wh o s e c u r e s t h e f i r s t
p o s i t i o n i n t h e a l l I n d i a U P S C E n -
trance Examination to NDA irrespective of the fact whether he has passed
o u t f r o m R I M C o r f r o m a n y o f t h e
Sainik Schools in India. The financial
position of a Cadet’s father/guardian
is not taken into consideration.
(7) BIHARI LAL MANDAKINI PRIZE -
This is cash prize of Rs. 500.00 available for the best BENGALI boy in each
Course of the Academy. Application
Forms are available with the Commandant, National Defence Academy.
(8) ORISSA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS - These scholarships, one
for the Army, one for the Navy and
the other for the Air Force of the value
of Rs. 80.00 each per month will be
awarded by the Government of Orissa
to the cadets who are permanent residents of the State of ORISSA. Two of
these scholarships will be awarded on
the basis of merit-cum-means of the
cadets whose parent’s or guardian’s
income does not exceed Rs. 5,000/-
per annum and the other one will be
given to the best cadet irrespective of
his parent’s or guardian’s income.
(9) WEST BENGAL GOVERNMENT
SCHOLARSHIPS - Following categories
of scholarships are awarded by the West
Bengal Government to those cadets who
are permanent residents of WEST BENGAL:-
Scheme-I
Number of - Six per year.
Scholarships
Distribution of - One each for Army,
Scholarships Navy and Air Force
f o r e a c h o f t w o
terms commencing
every year.
Financial grant - 1st year - Lump Sum
per Award clothing grant of Rs.
2500/- and Pocket -
A l l o w a n c e o f R s .
125/- per month.
2nd/3rd/4th year -
P o c k e t A l l owa n c e
o f R s . 1 2 5 / - p e r
month.
Scheme-II
Number of - Six per year.
Scholarships
Distribution of - As in Scheme-I
Scholarships
Financial grant - 1st/2nd/3rd/4th year
per Award - Lump grant of Rs.
100/- each year.
( 1 0 ) P I L O T O F F I C E R G U R M E E T
S I N G H B E D I M E M O R I A L
SCHOLARSHIP - One Scholarship of
Rs. 420.00 per annum is granted to the
cadet who stands highest in the overall
order of merit amongst Air Force Cadets
at the end of the 4th term. It is for the
duration of one year (during 5th and 6th
t e r m s ) . T h i s s c h o l a r s h i p w i l l b e
withdrawn if the recipient is relegated or
w i t h d r a w n d u r i n g t h e p e r i o d o f i t s
receipts. The Cadet who is already in
receipt of any such merit scholarship or
financial assistance is not entitled to this
scholarship.
( 1 1 ) H I M A C H A L P R A D E S H
GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP - Four
scholarships will be awarded to cadets
from HIMACHAL PRADESH. The value24 U P S C Employment News 31 December 2011 - 6 January 2012
of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per
mo n t h d u r i n g t h e f i r s t two y e a r s o f
training and Rs. 48.00 per month during
t h e t h i r d y e a r o f t r a i n i n g . T h e s e
scholarships will be available to those
cadets whose parent’s income is below
Rs . 5 0 0 . 0 0 p e r mo n t h . No c a d e t i n
receipt of financial assistance from the
Government wi l l be el igible for this
scholarship.
( 1 2 ) T A M I L N A D U G O V E R N M E N T
SCHOLARSHIP - The Government of
Tamil Nadu has instituted at NDA one
scholarship per course of the value of
R s . 3 0 / - p e r m o n t h p l u s a n o u t f i t
allowance of Rs. 400/- (one only during
the entire period of cadet’s training) to
be awarded to a cadet belonging to the
State of TAMIL NADU whose parents’/
guardians’ monthly income does not
exceed Rs. 500/-. The application by
an eligible cadet can be made to the
C o m m a n d a n t , N a t i o n a l D e f e n c e
Academy on their arrival.
( 1 3 ) K A R N A T A K A G O V E R N M E N T
SCHOLARSHIPS - The Government of
Karnataka has awarded 18 scholarships
(Eighteen Scholarships), 9 in respect of
course commencing from January and
9 in respect of course commencing from
July every year for award to cadets from
Karnataka State who join the National
Defence Academy after completion of
their education at the Sainik School,
Bijapur or at the Rashtriya Indian Military
College, Dehra Dun. The value of the
scholarship shall be Rs. 480/- (Rupees
Four hundred and eighty) each per
annum. Four more scholarships (two per
term) at the rate of Rs. 480/- per annum
for the cadets of Karnataka State who
join NDA after completion of education
other than at Sainik School, Bijapur/RIM
College, Dehra Dun have been awarded.
(14) ALBERT EKKA SCHOLARSHIP -
The Government of Bihar has instituted
at NDA 25 Merit Scholarships at Rs. 50/
- per month for entire period of six terms
at the NDA and Rs. 650/ - one t ime
towards clothing and equipment. The
c a d e t a w a r d e d t h e a b o v e m e r i t
scholarship would not be eligible for any
other scholarship or financial assistance
from the Government. The application
by an eligible cadet can be made to the
C o m m a n d a n t N a t i o n a l D e f e n c e
Academy on their arrival.
( 1 5 ) F G O F F I C E R D V P I N T O O
MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP - GP Capt
M V a s h i s h t a h a s i n s t i t u t e d 3
s c h o l a r s h i p s o f Rs . 1 2 5 / - e a c h p e r
month at NDA for one term to be awarded
to the first three cadets in the order of
m e r i t o n c o m p l e t i o n o f t h e i r f i r s t
semester till end of second term. The
cadets in receipt of Govt . Financial
Assistance will not be eligible for the
above scholarships. The application for
e l i g i b l e c a d e t s c a n b e ma d e t o t h e
Commandant, NDA on arrival.
( 1 6 ) F I N A N C I A L A S S I S T A N C E T O
W A R D S O F E X - S E R V I C E M E N -
MAHARASHTRA STATE
The wards of Maharashtrian ex-service
officers/men who are undergoing training
a s C a d e t s a t N D A / I M A / A i r F o r c e
Academy and Naval Academy will be
given pocket expenses prescribed by
t h e T r a i n i n g E s t a b l i s h m e n t a t t h e
following rates:
Ex-Officers : 50% of total pocket
expenses for entire
duration of training.
EX-JCOs : 75% -doEx-ORs : 100% -doThe parents/guardians of the wards
should submit their applications to their
respective Zila Sainik Welfare Office
along with the certificates obtained from
the academy, showing the rates of pocket
money, based on which the amount will
be remitted to the applicant’s parents.
Terms and conditions governing these
scholarships are obtainable from the
C o m m a n d a n t , N a t i o n a l D e f e n c e
A c a d emy , KHADA KWA S L A , PUNE -
411023.
5 . I m m e d i a t e l y a f t e r t h e s e l e c t e d
c a n d i d a t e s j o i n t h e A c a d e m y , a
preliminary examination will be held in
the following subjects.
(a) English;
(b) Mathematics;
(c) Science;
(d) Hindi.
The standard of the examination in the
subjects at (a), (b) and (c) will not be
higher than that of the Higher Secondary
Examination of an Indian University or
Board of Higher Secondary Education.
T h e p a p e r i n t h e s u b j e c t a t ( d ) i s
intended to test the standard attained
by the candidate in Hindi at the time of
joining the Academy.
Candidates are, therefore, advised not
t o n e g l e c t t h e i r s t u d i e s a f t e r t h e
competitive examination.
TRAINING
6. The selected candidates for the three
services, viz., Army, Navy and Air Force
a r e g i v e n p r e l i m i n a r y t r a i n i n g b o t h
academic and physical for a period of 3
years at the National Defence Academy
which is an Inter-Service Institution. The
training during the first two and half years
is common to the cadets of three wings.
The cadets on passing out will be awarded
B.Sc./B.Sc. (Computer)/BA. degree from
Jawaharlal Nehru University, Delhi.
The selected candidates of the Naval
A c a d emy wi l l b e g i v e n p r e l imi n a r y
training both academic and physical, for
a period of 04 years at Indian Naval
Academy, Ezhimala. The cadets of 10+2
Cadet Entry Scheme will be awarded a
B.Tech Degree on successful completion
of training.
7. On passing out from the National
Defence Academy, Army Cadets go to
the Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun,
Navel Cadets to Indian Naval Academy
Ezhimala and Air Force cadets to AFA,
HYDERABAD.
8. At the I.M.A. Army Cadets are known
as Gentlemen Cadets and are given
strenuous military training for a period
of one year aimed at turning officer
capable of leading infantry Sub-units. On
s u c c e s s f u l c o m p l e t i o n o f t r a i n i n g
G e n t l e m e n C a d e t s a r e g r a n t e d
Permanent Commission in the rank of
L t . s u b j e c t t o b e i n g me d i c a l l y f i t i n
“SHAPE” one.
9. The Naval cadets are selected for the
Executive Branch of the Navy, on passing
out from the National Defence Academy
and are given further training at Indian
Naval Academy, Ezhimala for a period
of one year on successful completion
of which they are promoted to the rank of
Sub Lieutenants.
10. Air Force Cadets receive flying training
for a period of 1½ years. However, at the
end of 1 year of training they are given
provisional Commission in the rank of
F l y i n g Of f i c e r. Af ter successful
completion of further training of six months
t h e y a r e a b s o r b e d a s p e rma n e n t
commissioned officers on probation for a
period of one year.
T E R M S A N D C O N D I T I O N S O F
SERVICES
11. Army Officers and equivalent ranks
in Air Force and Navy
(i) Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training
Ge n t l eme n c a d e t s d u r i n g t h e e n t i r e
duration of training in Service academies
i.e. during training period at IMA and OTA
s h a l l b e e n t i t l e d t o s t i p e n d o f R s .
21,000/- p.m. (Rs. 15,600/- as pay in Pay
Band plus Grade Pay of Rs. 5,400/-).
(ii) Pay
(a) Rank Pay Band (Rs.)
Lt to Maj 15,600-39,100(PB-3)
Lt Col to Maj 37,400-67,000(PB-4)
Gen
Lt Gen HAG 67,000 - (annual
Scale increment @ 3%) -
79,000
HAG + 75,500 - (annual
Scale* increment @ 3%)-
80000
(*Admissible to 1/3rd of total stength of
Lt Gens)
VCOAS/Army 80,000 (fixed)
Cdr/ Lt Gen
(NFSG)
COAS 90,000 (fixed)
(b) In addition to pay, Grade pay will
also be given as under:
Lt Rs.5,400/-
Capt Rs.6,100/-
Maj Rs.6,600/-
Lt Col Rs.8,000/-
Col Rs.8,700/-
Brig Rs.8,900/-
Maj Gen Rs.10,000/-
(c) A fixed sum of Rs.6,000/- p.m. is
also payable as Mi l i tary Service
Pay(MSP) to the officers from the
rank of Lt to Brig.
(iii) QUALIFICATION PAY AND GRANT
Officers possessing certain prescribed
Qualification are entitled to lumpsum
Q u a l i f i c a t i o n G r a n t o f R s . 6 0 0 0 / - ,
9,000/-, 15,000/- or 20,000/- based on
the qualification held by them.
The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in
Army Aviation Corps are entitled to the
Q u a l i f i c a t i o n P a y , b a s e d o n t h e
Qualification held by them as under:
(i) M a s t e r A v i a t i o n I n s t r u c t o r -
Rs 500/- p.m.
(ii) Senior Aviation Instructor Class IRs. 400/- p.m. .
(iii) Senior Aviation Instructor Class IIRs. 280/-p.m.
(iv) Aviators holding Master Green Card
- Rs. 400/-p.m.
(v) Aviators holding Green Card Rs 280/
-p.m.
The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in the
Army Aviation Corps are Entitled to flying
allowance as under :
(a) Brig & above Rs. 10,500/-
(b) Maj to Col Rs. 14,000/-
(c) Capt Rs. 11,000/-
(d) Lt Rs. 9,000/-
(iv) Allowances
In addition to pay, an officer at present
receives the following allowances:
(a) Dearness Allowances are admissible
at the same rates and under the same
c o n d i t i o n s a s a r e a p p l i c a b l e t o t h e
Civilian Gazetted Officers from time to
time.
(b) A kit maintainance allowances of Rs.
400/- p.m.
(c) Depending upon rank and area of
posting, officer posted to Field Areas Will
b e e l i g i b l e f o r c omp e n s a t o r y Hi g h l y
active Field Area Allowance at the rate
o f R s . 6 , 7 8 0 / - t o R s . 8 , 4 0 0 / - p . m .
Compensatory Field Area Allowance at
the rate of Rs. 4,200/- to Rs. 5,200/-p.m.
and Compensatory Modified Field Area
Allowance at the rate of Rs. 1,600/- to
Rs. 2,000/- p.m.
(d) In addition to the Compensatory Field
A r e a s A l l owa n c e , o f f i c e r s p o s t e d t o
areas situated at a height of 9,000 ft and
a b o v e a r e e n t i t l e d f o r Hi g h A l t i t u d e
Allowance in the range of Rs. 1,060 p.m.
to Rs. 11,200 p.m. depending upon rank
of the officer and place of posting.
(e) Uniform allowance : Initial allowance
for one time kit @ Rs. 14,000/- and Rs.
3,000/- for every three years.
(f) Transport allowance : Transport @
Rs. 3,200/- + DA thereon p.m. in A-1/A
class Cities and Rs. 1600/- + DA thereon
p.m. at other places shall be admissible
to officers.
12. (a) Army Group Insurance Fund is a
compulsory contributory group scheme,
which provides insurance cover for ` 8
lac on payment of one time premium of
` 4250/- for 3 years paid in advance in
lump sum by the cadets including Naval
and Air Force Cadets of NDA from the
date of joining for Pre-commission training
till completion of training at NDA. In case
of relegation, an additional premium of
` 770/- per relegated term will be paid
immediately on occurrence. For those
who are medically boarded out of NDA
o n a c c o u n t o f D i s a b i l i t y , t h e c o v e r
provided is 50 percent of the insured
amount for 100 per cent disability i.e. ` 4
lac for 100 per cent disability which is
proportionately reduced to ` 80,000/- for
20 per cent disabi l i ty. Cadets being
boarded out with less than 20 per cent
w i l l b e g i v e n a n e x - g r a t i a g r a n t o f
` 50,000/- and ` 1 lac for cadet invalided
out with less than 20 per cent disability
during last year of training. Disability due
to alcoholism, drug addiction and due to
the diseases of pre-enrolment origin will
not qualify for disability benefits and exgratia. In addition, a cadet withdrawn on
disciplinary grounds or as undesirable or
voluntarily leaves the Academy will also
not be eligible for disability benefits and
ex-gratia.
(b) At IMA when in receipt of stipend the
G e n t l e m e n C a d e t s a r e p r o v i d e d
insurance cover of ` 40 lac w.e.f. 01 Apr
2 0 1 1 a s p e r m a i n A G I s c h e m e a s
applicable to regular officers. Those who
are medically boarded out of IMA on
account of disability, the cover provided
is 50 per cent of the insured amount for
100 per cent disability, i.e. ` 20 lac for
1 0 0 p e r c e n t d i s a b i l i t y w h i c h i s
proportionately reduced to ` 4 lac for 20
p e r c e n t a n d a n e x - g r a t i a g r a n t o f
` 50,000/ - for less than 20 per cent
disability. Disability due to alcoholism,
drug addiction and due to the diseases
of pre enrolment origin will not qualify for
d i s a b i l i t y b e n e f i t s a n d e x - g r a t i a . I n
a d d i t i o n , a c a d e t w i t h d r a w n o n
disciplinary grounds or as undesirable or
voluntarily leaves the Academy will also
not be eligible for disability benefits and
ex-gratia.
13. RETIREMENT BENEFITS
Pension, gratuity and casualty pensionary
award will be admissible in accordance
with the rules in force from time to time.
14. LEAVE
Leave will be admissible in accordance
with the rules in force from time to time.
davp 55104/11/0038/1011
EN 40/1
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